>> In the first time step, you'll have 0 slip ratio since the tire and car have
>> no velocity (the tire hasn't flexed yet, so it won't produce a force).
>Yes I understand that. But it seems that there must be some (short) period
>of time where the axle is starting to spin but the wheel has no forward
>velocity -- the *** "winding up" as it were -- until the tire starts
>to slip and a forward force is generated. I guess I'm confused about how
>the slip ratio gets from zero to not-zero.
Right. 3 approaches can be taken (probably a dozen more, but anyway):
1. The Barnard way of indirecting SR. (so SR gets updated using an
indirect tan(SR) based on the wheel spin velocity). This gets the feel
of '*** building up'.
2. Just ignore the (quick) *** force buildup and accelerate the
wheel. With SR=0 at the first timestep, no counterforce will be
present. The NEXT step though, SR will be >0 (probably even infinite)
and a force will push from the road back onto the tire. Eventually,
you'll reach a balance. If your timestep is small enough, it will
bounce back & forth but look good onscreen.
3. Another SAE paper (98-something) looks at the tire as a 3D spring.
So longitudinally, you let the wheel spin and this creates a force
because the tire ofcourse also works as a spring in longitudinal
direction. When that is found, it is verified against the friction
circle, and if the force is really not possible (too much amplitude),
then the force is reduced to the edge of the circle and the spring
offset is adjusted (shifted) accordingly (it's a predictor-corrector
method).
I would suggest starting with #2. I think #3, despite it's easy
understanding, is problematic because I think the spring are too stiff
and you'll have trouble with the integrations. After you get #2 to
work, you can add #1 without too much hassle (extend it). There's some
pretty damping trouble you may have to go through there.
Ruud van Gaal
Free car sim : http://www.racesimcentral.net/
Pencil art : http://www.racesimcentral.net/