Michael Young wrote:
> Gregor Veble <gregor.ve...@uni-mb.si> wrote in message
> news:38B1449F.276C379B@uni-mb.si...
> > When a metal drum acquires a nonzero slip angle, the stiction
> > immediately ceases and the force on it becomes purely frictional, thus
> > the wheel develops a proper slide in accord with the definition above.
> Yes, non-zero slip angles occur in rubber tires due to their deformation.
> Steel drums have a much smaller range of deformation. :-)
> > The frictional force always shows in the opposite direction to the
> > relative velocity between the rubbing surfaces.
> > The main point is that, with a free rolling drum in a sliding
> > equlibrium, the relative velocity of the contact point on the bottom of
> > the drum with respect to the ground is always in the direction of the
> > wheel axis, i.e. perpendicular to the plane of rotation.
> This is where intuition departs for me. To demonstrate your point, say I
> drag a steel drum behind me as I cruise down the road. The harness allows me
> to "steer" the drum. The edges of the drum are rounded to prevent edge
> effect, which would negate the conditions under discussion. Thus, only
> sliding friction of the contact patch and the pinned connection at the axle
> acts on the wheel.
Let us define the experiment a bit further. All measurements are done at
a constant velocity of the tyre so no translational acceleration accurs
(i.e. accelerating the center of gravity of the tyre), but accelerations
around the axis of the wheel are possible. All velocities considered
here will be measured with respect to the ground (this is important).
> The frictional force acts to directly oppose the direction of travel. This
> force can be decomposed to components perpendicular and parallel to the
> plane of wheel rotation. Intuitively, I expect the wheel will spin up to
> road speed (unless this force is reduced to zero by steering it
> perpendicular to the direction of travel). The component of force in the
> plane of rotation is entirely dissipated by accelerating the wheel's
> rotation about its axis. The perpendicular component is the resultant
> lateral force. No other result is possible.
To be more exact, the frictional force acts to directly oppose the
direction of the slipping, and not the direction of travel of the center
of the wheel. If the tyre would not be rotating, the direction of the
travel would be the same as the direction of the slipping and the
frictional force would then be opposing the direcion of the travel of
the wheel (i.e. its velocity vector). As soon as the wheel rotation is
present, the direction of slipping does not match the direction of
travel anymore and things get a bit more involved. For example, when the
rotation of the wheel is faster than the corresponding road travel
velocity but the wheel still points in the direction of travel, the
friction force does not oppose the direction of travel but actually
points in the same direction (this happens in real cars when you have,
for example, wheel spin on acceleration - bit let's forget about real
cars for now).
However, the forces do not get dissipated in the way, for example,
energy does. The component of the frictional force that is used to
accelerate the rotation of the wheel through the torque it produces on
the rotational axis when the wheel is pointing at a slip angle, is also
in effect when considering the overall force on the wheel. The fact that
it is used for rotational acceleration does not negate ('dissipate') its
effect when translational effects are in question.
So if you press a stationary yet freely rotating (i.e. no brakes on the
axis) wheel onto a moving road surface, the frictional force - at that
exact instant - points exactly in the opposite direction to the road
travel as the slipping is done in that direction, and there is NO
translational component at this moment. Still, the component of the
frictional force in the plane of rotation produces a torque which starts
accelerating the wheel, but this does not have any effect on the total
force felt by the wheel, i.e. the wheel stil feels that component of
force.
> The difficulty with this explanation is what happens when the wheel is
> already rotating at its steady state speed? The frictional force no longer
> accelerates the wheel's rotation, and must be dissipated somewhere else.
As soon as the wheel is rotating, the velocity vector of the point on
the wheel at its bottom (at the contact point) is not the same as the
one at the center of the wheel, but gets a component that is
proportional to the angular velocity of the wheel and is pointing in the
plane of rotation of the wheel.
To put it in mathematical terms, the components of the total velocity of
the point at the bottom in the plane of the wheel are (after a little
bit of geometry)
V_in_plane = V_travel * Cos(alpha)-Omega * R (1)
V_perpendicular = V_travel * Sin(alpha) (2)
where alpha is the slip angle, Omega the angular velocity and R the
radius of the wheel. As this is the velocity as measured with respect to
the ground, this are exactly the components of the slipping velocity,
because it is the point that is in contact with the ground.
The friction force points exactly opposite to this velocity but its
magnitude is always the same, namely the coefficient of friction times
the normal force. Now, as long as V_in_plane is not 0, there is a
component of the friction force opposing it which in turn produces the
torque accelerates the rotation of the wheel (changes the Omega) until
V_in_plane=0. In this case,
Omega = (V_travel/R) * Cos(alpha). (3)
This means that the slipping velocity in equilibrium always points
perpendicular to the plane of rotation (as its component in the plane of
rotation is zero), and from this it follows that the friction force is
also perpendicular to the plane of rotation as it points exactly the
opposite way.
> So, refining the mental picture of what's happening: As the wheel
> accelerates (spins faster), the apparent slide angle differs from the actual
> steer angle to account for the motion of the face of the wheel across the
> road. At steady state, each infinitesimal element on the face of the drum
> has a component of velocity equal to the road speed. Thus, incredibly, the
> drum is actually turning faster than it would if the steering angle was held
> at zero.
Not true, see equation (3). The rotation is maximal when the wheel is
pointing in the direction of the travel, and gradually goes to zero when
alpha goes towards 90 degrees.
> My head hurts from trying to reconcile this, so I'll just offer a guess on
> the nature of the new resultant force. The rotation speed is such that the
> perpendicular component just cancels the lateral force arising from the
> steering angle. Thus, the net resultant frictional force is still directly
> behind the direction of travel, regardless of steering angle, meaning there
> is no directional integrity.
> I expect I'm more surprised than you at this result. :-)
Due to the points presented above I cannot agree. The friction force in
equilibrium is, written in the components perpendicular and in the wheel
plane,
F_in_plane = 0
F_perpendicular = F_total_friction,
which means that in another coordinate system,
F_in_travel = -F_total_friction * Sin(alpha)
F_perpendicular_to_travel = F_total_friction * Cos(alpha)
So when alpha goes to 0, only the component perpendicular to the
direction of travel exists, and the one opposing the travel direction in
fact tends to 0. This may sound very surprising, but is a subtle
consequence of the fact that the friction force is ideally independent
of the slipping velocity.
So I stand by my original point, that is that the free rolling and
purely frictioanally slipping wheel preserves most of the directional
integrity, only degraded by the ratio of the coefficient of friction and
the coefficient of stiction and the cosine of the slip angle (which is
close to 1 for small angles).
I apologize if the sign conventions are not obvious, but I would need a
sketch to present them better. But I am sure the general idea can be
extracted from the above equations.
> > I know from first hand experience, I did a lot of wonderful long turning
> > drifts with my little Renault Clio in the snow this winter. Only when
> > you aplly the brakes to lock the wheels or the accelerator to spin them
> > does the directional integrity gradually cease relative to the amount of
> > the longitudinal slip of the corresponding tires.
> I drive a late model Cobra all year round; its fat tires have almost zero
> traction in snow. Forgive me for presuming; I believe I am better acquainted
> with true slides versus simply extreme slip (which I also play with from
> time to time). So long as you still have directional control, you are not
> yet sliding. :-)
I forgive you for presuming ;), if you alow me to presume that, although
the practical advantage is no doubt yours, the theoretical advantage is
on my side :-). I do have a rather good understaning of a slide versus
an extreme slip, although the boundary is fuzzy (and sometimes hairy, as
any enthusiastic driver should know ;).
Never did I say I have directional control in the snow slides, turning
the wheel doesn't do diddly-squat then. Control can be had by pulling on
the handbrake which locks the rear wheels and changes the direction of
the force on the wheel from perpendicular to the wheel towards the
direction opposite to travel, thus diminishing the lateral force and
sending the tail further out. Or, in a front wheel drive car like mine,
flooring it puts the direction of the friction force directly in the
forward direction of the orientation of the tyres, which diminishes the
lateral force on the fronts. Note that when in a slide, only the
direction of the friction force can be changed, and not much can be done
about its
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